Question1: How is quality control performed?
Question2: Co-location is a tool and technique of:
Question3: Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?
EV= $500 PV= $750 AC= $1000 BAC= $1200
Question4: Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?
Question5: An output of the Create WBS process is:
Question6: When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict?
Question7: Which of the following are the components of the scope baseline?
Question8: The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:
Question9: A regression line is used to estimate:
Question10: When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:
Question11: What are the five Project Management Process Groups?
Question12: To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:
Question13: Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
Question14: Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?
Question15: The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:
Question16: Whichof the following is an output of the Plan Quality process?
Question17: What are assigned risk ratings based upon?
Question18: "Tailoring" is defined as the:
Question19: Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

Question20: Budgets reserved for unplanned changes to project scope and cost are:
Question21: What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?
Question22: Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in a/an:
Question23: Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
Question24: Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
Question25: Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?
Question26: When is a project finished?
Question27: While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?
Question28: Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
Question29: When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?
Question30: Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
Question31: An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:
Question32: Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?
Question33: What is the total float of the critical path?
Question34: Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?
Question35: What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?
Question36: Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?
Question37: Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?
Question38: The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
Question39: Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
Question40: An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work processis:
Question41: A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
Question42: Which of the following methods of performance reviewexamines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
Question43: The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
Question44: Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?
Question45: Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?
Question46: Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external partiesrelated to the project?
Question47: The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:
Question48: Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?
Question49: The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
Question50: What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
Question51: Which quality planning tools and techniques are used to visually identify logical groupings based on natural relationships?
Question52: Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
Question53: The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:
Question54: Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?
Question55: Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Question56: The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?
Question57: Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?
Question58: The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:
Question59: A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?
Question60: The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
Question61: Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:
Question62: Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management?
Question63: The process of monitoring the statusof the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:
Question64: Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
Question65: Tools and techniques usedfor Plan Communications include the communication:
Question66: The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?
Question67: How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
Question68: What are the components of the "triple constraint"?
Question69: What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish theproject objectives and create the required deliverables?
Question70: The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:
Question71: A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
Question72: Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
Question73: Through whom do project managers accomplish work?
Question74: Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?
Question75: Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
Question76: Which of the following is a means of reaching a group decision in which everyone agrees on a single course of action?
Question77: What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain?
Question78: A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?
Question79: What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
Question80: A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?
Question81: When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?
Question82: In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?
Question83: Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
Question84: Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?
Question85: Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?
Question86: A primary function of a project management office is to support project managers in a variety of ways, including which of the following?
Question87: What is the responsibility of the project manager andthe functional manager respectively?
Question88: Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?
Question89: The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:
Question90: Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?
Question91: The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
Question92: A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?
Question93: Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and anorganizations:
Question94: What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?
Question95: What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?
Question96: An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?
Question97: Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:
Question98: A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
Question99: Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Responses process?
Question100: Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?
Question101: Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?
Question102: Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?
Question103: What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?
Question104: Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?
Question105: Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?
Question106: A project manager needs to deliver the project 2 weeks before the planned date without changing the scope.
Which of the following techniques may be applied to reevaluate the schedule?
Question107: When does risk monitoring and control occur?
Question108: The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:
Question109: Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?
Question110: Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?
Question111: Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?
Question112: The product scope description is used to:
Question113: Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?
Question114: Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?
Question115: Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is arisk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?
Question116: What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?
Question117: Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?
Question118: Which process includesprioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
Question119: Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?
Question120: Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?
Question121: An imposed date for completion of the project by the customer is an example of a project:
Question122: The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?
Question123: The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
Question124: A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
Question125: An associate who calculates fees daily to support the department is doing which of the following?
Question126: Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
Question127: Which input to CollectRequirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
Question128: Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?
Question129: The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual cost of the project?
Question130: Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:
Question131: Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?
Question132: Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
Question133: Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?
Question134: Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
Question135: Which is an enterprise environmental factor?
Question136: An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:
Question137: The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:
Question138: An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
Question139: Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?
Question140: The Closing Process Group includes which of the following Knowledge Areas?
Question141: Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:
Question142: Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
Question143: Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?
Question144: A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:
Question145: The cost performance baseline is typically displayed in the form of:
Question146: Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?
Question147: In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?
Question148: Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:
Question149: Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which ofthe following?
Question150: The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?
Question151: Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?
Question152: The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:
Question153: A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:
Question154: Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?
Question155: A reward can only be effective if it is:
Question156: Change request status updates are an output of which process?
Question157: Who is responsible for determining which processesfrom the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them?
Question158: An output of the Validate Scope process is:
Question159: What do composite organizations involve?
Question160: The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
Question161: The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?
Question162: Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?
Question163: Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
Question164: Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?
Question165: An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainlyconcerned?
Question166: A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?
Question167: Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?
Question168: An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:
Question169: The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:
Question170: Organizational process assets can be divided into which of the following two categories?
Question171: Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of management to gather organizational support and promote project benefits?
Question172: Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
Question173: In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
Question174: Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?
Question175: Which is an example of Administer Procurements?
Question176: Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?
Question177: Inputs to the Define Activitiesprocess include:
Question178: Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?
Question179: A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
Question180: An input to the Identify Risks process is the:
Question181: Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
Question182: Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?
Question183: Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?
Question184: Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
Question185: Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?
Question186: Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
Question187: Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:
Question188: Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?
Question189: Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?
Question190: Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
Question191: The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?
Question192: Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?
Question193: Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?
Question194: The definition of operations is a/an:
Question195: At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?
Question196: Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?
Question197: An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
Question198: When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
Question199: Which of the following is a complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract?
Question200: Types of internal failure costs include:
Question201: Which of the following helps to ensure thateach requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
Question202: Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?
Question203: The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:
Question204: A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:
Question205: Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?
Question206: The iterative process of increasing thelevel of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:
Question207: Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:
Question208: A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?
Question209: As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?
Question210: Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?
Question211: Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?
Question212: Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?
Question213: Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
Question214: Which type of analysisis used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?
Question215: Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?
Question216: Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as akey project:
Question217: Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?
Question218: A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the righttime is an example of which type of communication?
Question219: Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?
Question220: What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?
Question221: Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
Question222: The traditional organization chart structure that can be used to show positions and relationships in a graphic top-down format is called a:
Question223: The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
Question224: What's budget?
Question225: Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?
Question226: An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:
Question227: Which of following could be organizational process assets?
Question228: The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
Question229: Projects can intersect with an organization's operations at various points during the product life cycle such as:
Question230: Which stakeholder approves a project's result?
Question231: Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?
Question232: Team performance assessments is an output of which of the following processes?
Question233: Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?
Question234: In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:
Question235: Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the projectmanagement plan is effective and current?
Question236: Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project Integration Management?
Question237: Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?
Question238: Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?
Question239: Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
Question240: In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
Question241: A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:
Question242: Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
Question243: Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (WBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?
Question244: Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?
Question245: The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?
Question246: What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
Question247: A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:
Question248: Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?
Question249: Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?
Question250: During which process group is the quality policy determined?
Question251: How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?
Question252: Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation is a focus of which of the following?
Question253: Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?
Question254: Quality metrics are an output of which process?
Question255: Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?
Question256: Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?
Question257: Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
Question258: The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
Question259: Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
Question260: A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:
Question261: A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:
Question262: Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization tolead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?
Question263: Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?
Question264: The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?
Question265: Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?
Question266: Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?
Question267: Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:
Question268: Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
Question269: Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?
Question270: What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?
Question271: An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:
Question272: Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?
Question273: Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?
Question274: While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:
Question275: Which of the following is a schematic display of the project's schedule activities and the logical relationships among them?
Question276: In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:
Question277: The Create WBS process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?
Question278: A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
Question279: A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:
Question280: Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:
Question281: Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:
Question282: What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
Question283: An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
Question284: Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
Question285: A process is defined as:
Question286: Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?
Question287: Which standard examines an enterprise's project management process capabilities?
Question288: Which action is included in the Control Costs process?
Question289: Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?
Question290: In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:
Question291: Which of the Project Time Management processes analyzes activity sequencing, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints?
Question292: Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
Question293: Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?
Question294: When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:
Question295: Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?
Question296: What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?
Question297: The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:
Question298: Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?
Question299: The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:
Question300: When should quality planning be performed?
Question301: Which process group contains the processes performed to finalize all activities?
Question302: Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:
Question303: The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:
Question304: Which processrequires implementation of approved changes?
Question305: Who is responsible for developing the project management plan and all related component plans?
Question306: Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
Question307: Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to changeunless the scope of work changes?
Question308: Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
Question309: What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?
Question310: A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?
Question311: Cost variance (CV) is equal to earned value:
Question312: Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?
Question313: Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
Question314: Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?
Question315: Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project Time Management process?
Question316: Which items are components of a project management plan?
Question317: The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
Question318: What process determines which risks might affect the project?